This post is a response to an article I read here. I hope you can tell that I’m trying to be somewhat light hearted and humorous in my response, since I’m trying to give some thoughts along the lines of what he’s saying, but also stand for some very important truths that I think are largely ignored, by all sides. If you’re at all confused by what I’m saying, go read his article first. From here on, I’m speaking in the second person, with the author of the original article as the antecedent for “you”.
I had a new insight into Romans 7:7-8 last night. This passage has been bugging me in the back of my mind for a while. I see in many other places in Scripture the obvious truth that each individual person is culpable for Adam’s transgression, and that as such it is thoroughly impossible to live a life worthy of heaven on one’s own merits. See Romans 5 for this. But then we get to Romans 7, and St. Paul says something that almost knocks me out of my seat.
What then shall we say? That the law is sin? By no means! Yet if it had not been for the law, I would not have known sin. For I would not have known what it is to covet if the law had not said, “You shall not covet.” But sin, seizing an opportunity through the commandment, produced in me all kinds of covetousness. For apart from the law, sin lies dead.
The above video gave me some pause. I wasn’t certain at first what the point was. The premise is that three missing words make Jesus a sinner. There were two possibilities at this point. Either this was an attempt to point out a contradiction in the Bible or this was a quasi-Ruckmanite attempt to show the KJV is better. After watching the video, it becomes obvious that the latter is the case.
In case you didn’t watch the video, the case this guy makes is that since Matthew 5:22 says “Everyone who is angry with his brother will be liable to judgement” (ESV) then later when Jesus is angry at the cleansing of the temple, he sinned. He said the problem with this is that the modern translations leave out the phrase that the KJV includes when it says “whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause…” (KJV emphasis added… obviously). His conclusion is that Jesus did not sin in cleansing the temple because he had reason to be angry, but the “modern” translations leave out that phrase, making Jesus a sinner. Here are some problems I have with his analysis and presentation.